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>The British, French, and Israelis literally went to war against Egypt over the Suez.

The British and the French were concerned about the Suez, but Israel was not dependent on the Suez and went to war over their navigation being blockaded by Egypt in the Gulf of Aqaba and the Straits of Tiran, which was a violation by Egypt of maritime law. Aqaba is in the Sinai peninsula which is also bounded by the Suez.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israeli_passage_through_the_Su...



I don't see how Egypt's claim against Israel was wrong.

The waters have been internal waters literally for three millennia (or more) until foreigners came in and built a canal connecting what is actually a very narrow gulf to the Mediterranean.

Foreigners come in, unilaterally build a canal and now the locals lose national sovereignty over their waters?

Also, why does Egypt have to agree to the freedom of navigation of a state it did not (at the time) recognize?

Furthermore, why must Egypt agree to the laws of freedom navigation it did not sign?

The answer, of course, is that there is no such thing as international law, or a "rules based order". There's only power makes might.


you are talking about the Suez and Israel, and it seems that you didn't read what I wrote




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